Browse all practice questions for the FINRA Investment Banking Representative Practice Exam. Search by topic, open any question and review its full explanation, then test yourself in the practice quiz.

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Are Mutual Funds Active or Passive Investors?Are mutual funds considered active or passive investors?Understand What Happens When Transactions Aren’t Reported to OFACWhat is a potential consequence of not reporting a transaction to OFAC?Understanding Capital Gains Tax for C Corporations and S CorporationsDo C corporations and S corporations have a capital gains tax rate?Understanding Coincident Economic Indicators and Their ImpactWhich of the following is a coincident economic indicator?Understanding Conflicts of Interest in Investment BankingWhen is a conflict of interest deemed to occur for an issuer?Understanding earned surplus: What it really means for your financesWhat term describes retained earnings after dividends have been paid?Understanding Eurodollar Bonds: What Makes Them Unique?Eurodollar bonds are characterized by which of the following?Understanding How Limited Partnerships Involve InvestorsHow does a limited partnership typically involve investors?Understanding How Many Copies of the Preliminary Prospectus You NeedHow many copies of the preliminary prospectus must be filed with the SEC?Understanding Non-Agricultural Employment as a Coincident IndicatorHow is non-agricultural employment categorized in economic indicators?Understanding Proxy Statements in One-Step Mergers: Key Details and InsightsWhat is contained within a proxy statement in a one-step merger transaction?Understanding Rallowance: A Key Component in Public OfferingsWhat does a reallowance refer to in finance?Understanding Regulation M and Its Impact on SecuritiesWhich of the following securities does Regulation M apply to?Understanding Rule 144A and its Impact on Unregistered SecuritiesWhat does Rule 144A permit companies to do regarding unregistered securities?Understanding Stock Sales and Asset Sales Under §338 of the Internal Revenue CodeWhich Internal Revenue Code section treats a stock sale as an asset sale for tax purposes?Understanding the 30/360 Method for Bond Interest CalculationsWhat is the days counting methodology for municipal and corporate bonds?Understanding the Bad Actor Provision in Rule D and Its Impact on Private PlacementsWhat does the Bad Actor Provision in Rule D prohibit?Understanding the Concept of a Full Takedown in UnderwritingWhat is a full takedown in underwriting?Understanding the Formula for Accounts Payable TurnoverWhat formula is used to calculate Accounts Payable Turnover?Understanding the Holding Period for Restricted Stock Under Rule 144How long must a restricted stock be held before it can be sold under Rule 144?Understanding the Key Benefit of Carrying Back Net Operating LossesWhat is a primary benefit of carrying back net operating losses (NOLs)?Understanding the Primary Effects of a Sale Leaseback for Company AWhat is the primary effect of a sale leaseback for Company A?Understanding the Role of Form 211 for Market Makers on the OTCBBWhat must a market maker file to begin quoting a security on the OTCBB?Understanding what happens when a C corporation's deductions exceed incomeWhat can happen if a C corporation's tax deductions exceed its taxable income?Understanding What Needs to Be Disclosed on Form 144What must be disclosed on Form 144?Understanding When a Promissory Note Becomes a SecurityWhen is a promissory note considered a security?Understanding When You Should Report to OFACWhen should an individual report to OFAC?Understanding Written and Oral Communication in FinanceWhich of the following is not considered written communication?What Corporate Insiders Need to Know About Selling Shares Under Rule 144What action must a corporate insider take when selling shares under Rule 144?What You Need to Know About Shareholder Requirements for SEC RegistrationWhat is the minimum number of shareholders for registration with the SEC?What You Need to Know About the SEC's $10 Million Asset Registration ThresholdWhat financial threshold is required for asset registration with the SEC?When Is a Control Relationship Required to Be Disclosed to a Client?When is a control relationship required to be disclosed to a client?When should a recorded road show be made available to investors in a securities offering?When must a recorded road show first be made available to investors?When Should an Auditor Report Illegal Activity Beyond the Board?When might an auditor report a potential illegal act to somebody other than the board of directors?
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  • What does the underwriting spread refer to?
  • When must the final syndicate settlement occur?
  • What does the term "size premium" refer to in finance?
  • What are the reporting obligations for companies under Regulation A?
  • What is defined as spinning in the context of investment banking?
  • Under what circumstances might a company choose to file for bankruptcy instead of negotiating with creditors?
  • The role of the specialist, also known as the Designated Market Maker, is most closely associated with which market?
  • What is required of a person participating in the distribution of a security under Regulation M?
  • When is a Form 3 filed with the SEC?
  • Why are fixed interest rates significant in regards to sinking funds?
  • What does WACC stand for in finance?
  • How is Accounts Payable Turnover calculated?
  • What is the term used for a tender offer where stock is offered to shareholders instead of cash?
  • What are the maximum criminal penalties for insider trading?
  • How often must AML compliance testing be performed if a firm does not execute transactions for clients?
  • What is credit arbitrage?
  • When must a managing underwriter notify the CFD of FINRA after SEC registration?
  • When a representative sells securities outside of their firm’s jurisdiction, what must they do?
  • How much may issuers sell under Regulation A+ Tier 2?
  • Under SEC Rule 425, communications about a business combination must be
  • When must Form 144 be submitted to the SEC?
  • What is the maximum amount of secondary sales allowed by security holders under Tier 1 of Regulation A+?
  • What type of suitability do institutional investors specifically need to focus on?
  • What is the purpose of the "know-your-customer" rule in finance?
  • What must occur immediately after a definitive agreement is signed between two companies regarding a purchase?
  • Which group must file a Schedule 14D-9?
  • What should happen to shares trading at a premium that are returned to a syndicate member?
  • Which of the following is not required for a company to maintain its listing on Nasdaq?
  • What suitability requirement must institutional investors comply with?
  • In which round of the sale process does the financing provider typically commit to the final terms and conditions?
  • What information must fiduciaries under FINRA Rule 2060 protect?
  • What should be done with funds transferred from a country that has sanctions against it?
  • Which of the following is TRUE regarding the requirement to notify an employer about a personal account?
  • When should a broker handle transactions covered by Form 144?
  • What action must an issuer take if found to have a conflict of interest?
  • Which form is required for corporate insiders who trade stocks in the open market?
  • What is the purpose of Regulation A?
  • What is a promissory note?
  • Under Regulation M, which category of securities has no restricted period?
  • What is required for a security to be listed on the OTCBB?
  • What types of communication are included in the definition of graphic communication?
  • How long does an individual have to pass the appropriate qualification exam to function in a principal capacity?
  • What is the required notification timeframe for the NYSE if a dividend is declared?
  • Which of the following is a condition for HSR filing, even if the transaction is smaller than the minimum value?
  • What must companies do with returned shares that were purchased at a premium?
  • When does an individual have a duty of trust?
  • Which economic indicator reflects conditions in the economy as they happen?
  • How is the value derived from unregistered stock sales under Rule 144A?
  • Who is typically restricted from investing in an IPO?
  • What is a key characteristic of convertible bonds?
  • What is a requirement for someone to be classified as a Qualified Institutional Buyer?
  • What must happen if a broker-dealer intends to promote a new issue?
  • When a company declares a dividend, which of the following occurs on the balance sheet?
  • What is required if there is a conflict of interest before selling a new issue?
  • Who must a broker-dealer conduct an annual compliance meeting for?
  • When must firms report to FINRA upon receiving a written customer complaint?
  • What does a revised financial statement under Regulation A offer?
  • What is the primary purpose of an annual compliance meeting?
  • During bankruptcy proceedings, which type of creditors have higher claim priority?
  • In the case of bankruptcy, what is the priority of fees for bankruptcy attorneys?
  • What is the formula for Return on Invested Capital (ROIC)?
  • Under normal circumstances, how many principals are general securities firms required to have?
  • If a company has 80% of its assets located within a state, what does this satisfy in relation to Rule 147?
  • What must be done if a seller exceeds the volume limits on sales covered by Form 144?
  • What is a common requirement for maintaining a firm’s membership with the FINRA?
  • Under which circumstance can a resale of a security occur without filing Form 144?
  • Which of the following best describes a limited liability company (LLC)?
  • What is the intent of Regulation FD (Fair Disclosure)?
  • What constitutes a short position that cannot be covered by a new issue?
  • Which component makes up a percentage of the underwriting spread?
  • Which type of investor is NOT considered an accredited investor?
  • Does a recorded road show need to be filed with the SEC?
  • To what does the "know-your-customer" rule apply?
  • What is the maximum duration for a right of first refusal (ROFR) agreement?
  • What is another term for earned surplus?
  • What is the takedown price?
  • What is the significance of a fairness opinion included in a proxy statement?
  • What type of loans generally does not require permission from an employer?
  • What is the time frame for filing a written request for review to appeal a decision by the National Adjudicatory Council regarding a firm's membership?
  • Who files the Schedule TO in a tender offer situation?
  • When must a Schedule 14-D9 be filed following a Schedule TO filing?
  • What triggers the filing of a Form 4?
  • What is the consequence of not filing Form 144 as required?
  • Which of the following is NOT a control security according to Rule 144?
  • If an outside auditor determines an illegal act may have occurred, what is their first step?
  • What should management do when shareholders submit proposals for proxy voting?
  • Under Regulation D, when is soliciting the public allowed?
  • What is the role of a managing underwriter in an IPO?
  • What is a master limited partnership?
  • What is the primary purpose of Regulation D?
  • Can a mutual fund qualify as a Well-Known Seasoned Issuer (WKSI)?
  • What condition must be met for an offshore offering to be exempt under Regulation S?
  • When must a preliminary prospectus be delivered to a potential purchaser?
  • What happens to Company A's EBITDA if it engages in a sale leaseback?
  • When does the prudent man burden of proof standard apply?
  • What is the days counting methodology for Treasury bonds?
  • What is the purpose of hiring a qualified independent underwriter?
  • What is the minimum transaction value that requires an HSR filing?
  • What is a consequence of not notifying the NYSE about a declared dividend on time?
  • What is a public float?
  • Which of the following statements about Form 144 is correct?
  • Under Rule 144A, who can Joe sell his unregistered stock to?
  • What is the clearing bid in a Dutch auction tender?
  • Which of the following statements is true about limited liability company (LLC) members?
  • What is the typical effect of a share buyback on a company's stock price?
  • Does purchasing and selling limited partnership units for one’s own account require notification to the firm?
  • What is the primary benefit of convertible bonds to issuers?
  • Which transaction type must not be covered by a new issue?
  • What is the function of a sinking fund?
  • When does a C corporation generate net operating losses (NOLs)?
  • Under which circumstance is a Schedule 13D required?
  • What are the civil penalties associated with insider trading?
  • Can variations of road shows exist according to regulations?
  • What is the minimum amount of net income required for an individual to be considered an accredited investor if married?
  • Under what circumstances do loans require permission?
  • Under what condition can an annual compliance meeting be recorded and delivered on-demand?
  • What is a characteristic of dividends on the balance sheet?
  • What happens when the SEC declares a registration statement effective?
  • When must an affiliate file notice of a proposed sale under Rule 144?
  • What action is required when an individual opens a personal account?
  • When considering a company's valuation, which PEG ratio is preferable?
  • What is the statute of limitations for arbitration proceedings?
  • In which scenario is diluted shares outstanding not greater than basic shares outstanding?
  • Who are considered "fiduciaries" under FINRA Rule 2060?
  • When should an issuer with low average trading volume avoid repurchasing its own securities?
  • What advantage does a sinking fund provision provide to investors?
  • How can repricing risk be effectively reduced?
  • What does Economic Value Added (EVA) measure?
  • What should be done if there's a change in the terms of the sale after filing Form 144?
  • Where do most bond transactions typically take place?
  • Who receives only the selling concession during an underwriting?
  • What is the primary purpose of Form 144?
  • What is a likely consequence of a company's share buyback program?
  • Which lists are firms conducting investment banking activities required to maintain?
  • Which requirement is necessary for a security to be listed on the OTC Pink market?
  • In which scenarios would Form 144 not be applicable?
  • Which of the following is a key characteristic of an annual compliance meeting?
  • What guidance does the SEC provide regarding Form 144?
  • For which of the following is a company NOT required to notify FINRA?
  • Which of these is a benefit of a stock sale under §338?
  • When must an individual notify their employer about a personal account?
  • In a merger, when must the HSR filing be made?
  • In the event of bankruptcy, how are executives' claims under a tax-advantaged deferred compensation plan treated?
  • Which of the following best describes a control relationship?
  • What is the filing date for a Schedule 8K?
  • What is Rule 144 primarily related to?
  • What liabilities do general partners in a limited partnership have?
  • Why is a size premium added to the WACC for smaller companies?
  • Is the SEC filing of a recorded road show considered a free-writing prospectus?
  • What is the purpose of Form D in Regulation D?
  • What is the restriction on the use of a new issue to cover a short position?
  • What is the effect on debt/equity ratio if proceeds from a sale leaseback are distributed as dividends?
  • In which scenario would a buyer need to make Representations and Warranties about its own business?
  • Where must a registered representative be registered?
  • What is the quotation method used for T-bills?
  • What information is required to be included in the purpose section of Form 144?
  • According to the dividend discount model, how is the stock price calculated?
  • Can restricted shares be sold without complying with Rule 144 in certain circumstances?
  • According to Regulation M, what must FINRA receive from offering participants?
  • Which group is considered an exception to the IPO investing restrictions?
  • What does the Hart-Scott-Rodino act govern?
  • Which yield is usually greater for a T-bill?
  • What must a newly registered representative who has been out of the securities industry for over two years complete regarding the Regulatory Element?
  • Does a broker-dealer need to maintain a permanent record of the prospectus?
  • What is the nature of the business structure of a limited partnership?
  • How are T-notes and T-bonds quoted?
  • What defines Yankee bonds?
  • What is Rule 147 primarily concerned with?
  • What type of incident must be reported to FINRA on an amended U-4?
  • What is the discount rate in the context of the dividend discount model?
  • How can a firm utilize its net operating losses (NOLs)?
  • What is one of the main functions of the supervisory obligations when a rep sells securities outside their jurisdiction?
  • For what purpose is a Form 5 filed?
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